Showing posts with label undesigned coincidences. Show all posts
Showing posts with label undesigned coincidences. Show all posts

Sunday, April 10, 2022

Six Days Before the Passover: The Casual Interlocking of Johannine and Markan Chronology

In this post I will analyze an undesigned coincidence between the Markan and Johannine chronologies of the passion week. More specifically, I will argue that the timelines subtly interlock in a way difficult to explain as either deliberate imitation or accidental verisimilitude.

John and Mark

We'll begin by dissecting the Johannine chronology.

John 12.1, 12-13 anchors the timeline: "Therefore, six days before the Passover, Jesus came to Bethany where Lazarus was, whom Jesus had raised from the dead... On the next day, when the large crowd that had come to the feast heard that Jesus was coming to Jerusalem, they took the branches of the palm trees and went out to meet Him, and began shouting, 'Hosanna! Blessed is He who comes in the name of the Lord, indeed, the King of Israel!'"

These temporal markers, unique to John, establish that the triumphal entry took place five days before the Passover. John gives us no timestamps after this but skips forward to the night of the Last Supper. For a response to the allegation that John has the Last Supper on a different day than the Synoptics, see my post here. And for a response to the objection that Jerusalem lacked palm trees, see here.

We can now turn to Mark and see whether his account lines up with John's. The first relevant passage is Mark 11.1-2, 7-8: "And as they approached Jerusalem, at Bethphage and Bethany, near the Mount of Olives, He sent two of His disciples, and said to them, 'Go into the village opposite you, and immediately as you enter it you will find a colt tied there, on which no one has ever sat; untie it and bring it here...' They brought the colt to Jesus and put their cloaks on it; and He sat on it. And many people spread their cloaks on the road, and others spread leafy branches which they had cut from the fields."

At this point we must make a plausible assumption about Mark's chronology—namely, that there's a day between Jesus approaching Bethany and and the triumphal entry, as in John. Lydia McGrew argues that this verse should be taken as "merely alluding to the fact that Bethany and Bethphage were close to Jerusalem and marked the approach to Jerusalem and the approximate location from which Jesus sent his disciples to get the colt." Lydia McGrew comments, "As some independent support for this assumption, Matthew mentions only Bethphage at the same point in his narrative—Matthew 21.1." (Hidden in Plain View, p. 114) This fits better with the amount of activity that takes place on the following day: the disciples get the colt, Jesus enters Jerusalem, and after he and his disciples were done "looking around at everything" (which probably took some time), it is said that he left for Bethany, because it was "already late". I confess that this ambiguity makes the interlocking less impressive, but it still has evidential value.

According to John's chronology, Jesus entered Bethany six days before the Passover, and rode in to Jerusalem five days before the Passover. This is quite consistent with Mark's account. Since Mark gives us temporal markers for the rest of the week, we can begin counting the days until Passover and see whether it lines up with John's account.

Mark 11.12 says "On the next day...". Since this is the day after the triumphal entry (five days before the Passover, according to John), it puts us at four days away. Verses 19-20 say "And whenever evening came, they would leave the city. As they were passing by in the morning...". This is three days away.

A lot of activity follows, plausibly filling up the third day before the Passover. This, along with the fact that this next verse mentions the chronology, strongly suggests that if John is correct, we should now be in the second day before the Passover. So consult Mark 14.1-2: "Now the Passover and Festival of Unleavened Bread were two days away; and the chief priests and the scribes were seeking how to arrest Him..."

Recall that this is the first time Mark tells us how many days until the Passover—he doesn't include the "six days before" marker that John has. John, on the other hand, includes the sixth and the fifth days before the Passover but leaves out the rest of the week, not mentioning Mark's comment about it being two days before the Passover. By making an initial minor assumption, his account lines up perfectly with John's.

The Other Synoptics

See footnote [1] for a comment on how Matthew's account makes our earlier minor assumption more probable. There is some tension between the timelines for the rest of the week in Mark and Matthew, specifically with regard to the cleansing of the temple and the withering of the fig tree. This might be the subject of a future post.

Luke doesn't give many temporal markers in his account, so we can't compare it with the Markan chronology.

Objections

There are a few objections that could be raised to this line of argument. One could argue that John deliberately mentioned "six days before" in an attempt to line up with Mark's account, or that this interlocking was entirely accidental and carries little evidential weight. I will offer some comments in response to both of these.

How plausible is it that John would deliberately follow Mark here? The first assumption necessary for this hypothesis to work is that John had access to Mark's Gospel, which many scholars doubt, but it will be granted for the sake of argument. Note that John contains nothing else from Mark's account of the final week of Jesus, up until the Passover meal. There is no Johannine account of the (second) cleansing of the temple, the withering of the fig tree, the Olivet discourse, Jesus' final parables, or the widow giving coins. It's pretty implausible that John would so subtly insert a temporal marker derived from Mark's account but then omit everything else Mark has to say, even including things that superficially contradict Mark (e.g. Jesus, rather than his disciples, getting the donkey; the law of agency absolves this discrepancy). And even if John did get his information from Mark, the fact that the would go to such a length to accurately and subtly embed a chronological detail into his narrative, when he could just as easily have left it out, shows his high concern for historical accuracy and extreme fidelity to his source material, counting in favor of his general reliability.

By far the better skeptical response to this undesigned coincidence is that the interlocking was accidental, not in the sense entailed by an undesigned coincidence, but rather a chance versimilitude that has nothing to do with the reality of the event in question. This objection has less to do with the reality of the undesigned coincidence and more with its epistemic implications. An example would be two separate Harry Potter fanfiction stories agreeing narrating an interlocking chronology. In response, it may first be stated that this kind of interlocking is undoubtedly at least somewhat more probable on the hypothesis of eyewitness testimony, and the debate is rather over the degree of that probability. In favor of a weighty probability, we may adduce certain considerations, such as the unlikelihood of Mark and John including temporal markers at all if they weren't certain about the timing of the passion week, and the otherwise vastly differing content selections in both Gospels. The skeptic might further argue that perhaps the interlocking is motivated by a common agreement as to the time of the triumphal entry, and coincidence takes care of the rest. However, any common agreement pertaining to the chronology is itself difficult to explain unless it goes back to a genuine memory of the events in question, which is exactly what this undesigned coincidence is trying to argue. 

Considerations like those just discussed are one of the reasons undesigned coincidences are best presented as a cumulative argument, as no individual coincidence is inexplicable without eyewitness testimony. Rather, a pattern of plausible examples adduces a strong case for their evidential weight. I hope to have shown that this particular interlocking is plausibly the result of historical accuracy. Instead of constructing ad hoc theories to explain this agreement between Mark and John, we should accept the far simpler hypothesis that both accounts are accurately reporting the events as remembered. 

Wednesday, November 25, 2020

Ehrman vs. McGrew: Round 1 Review

 I was recently re-watching Tim McGrew's debate with Bart Ehrman on Unbelievable? with Justin Brierley. I wasn't planning on blogging today, but when I heard Ehrman's misleading arguments, I had to write down some replies. 

(You can listen to it here)

1: Ehrman claims the first mention of Gospel authorship is by Irenaeus c. 180. This is such a simplistic reading, & is only true of Luke. Here is a list of when, and who, mention the Gospels by name: 

Mark- Papias (100), Justin Martyr (155), Irenaeus (175), Clement of Alexandria (195), Muratorian Fragment (late second century) Matthew- Papias (100), Gospel of Thomas 13 (140-180), Apollinaris (175), Irenaeus (175), Clement of Alexandria (195), Muratorian Fragment (late second century) John- Papias (100), Ptolemy (150-175), Heracleon (150-175), Acts of John (150-200), Irenaeus (175), Hegesippus (175), Theophilus of Antioch (180), Polycrates (190), Clement of Alexandria (195), Muratorian Fragment (late second century), Act of Peter and the Twelve (200)

(I am thankful to my friend Chris for the above) 

2: Ehrman claims Justin Martyr doesn't quote John. This is questionable. He neglects to mention C.E. Hill's study on the topic, which you can read here. To my knowledge, Hill isn't some fringe scholar, he is mainstream. I wonder why Ehrman doesn't mention this? Maybe because he teaches at a seminary?

3: Ehrman goes on to say that the Gospels are quoted anonymously by all of our earliest writings. Dr. McGrew goes on to point out (rightly) that the same is done with Paul's letters. But, lets crank up McGrew's argument up a notch. Notice those same sources Ehrman goes to, do the same exact type of citation with the Old Testament! Some examples include: 

1 Clement 4:1- "For so it is writtenAnd it came to pass after certain days that
Cain brought of the fruits of the earth a sacrifice unto God, and
Abel he also brought of the firstlings of the sheep and of their
fatness." (Italics mine)

1 Clement 4:6- "And Cain said unto Abel his brother, Let us go over unto the plain.
And it came to pass, while they Were in the plain, that Cain rose up
against Abel his brother and slew him."
(Italics mine)

1 Clement 8:4-5- "and He added also a merciful judgment: Repent ye, O house of
Israel, of your iniquity; say unto the sons of My people, Though
your sins reach from the earth even unto the heaven, and though
they be redder than scarlet and blacker than sackcloth, and ye turn
unto Me with your whole heart and say Father, I will give ear unto
you as unto a holy people. 
And in another place He saith on this wise, Wash, be ye clean. Put away your iniquities from your souls out of My sight. Cease from your iniquities; learn to do good; seek out judgment; defend him that is wronged: give judgment for the orphan, and execute righteousness for the widow; and come and let us reason together, saith He; and though your sins be as crimson, I will make them white as snow; and though they be as scarlet, I will make them white as wool. And if ye be willing and will hearken unto Me, ye shall eat the good things of the earth; but if ye be not willing, neither hearken unto Me, a sword shall devour you; for the mouth of the Lord hath spoken these things." (Italics original)

Ehrman is simply misleading the audience here. You can look at the rest of the 1st century corpus here

4: Ehrman claims McGrew is appealing to authority when bringing up Martin Hengel. However, some how, Ehrman fails to realize that all McGrew is doing here is stating where he originally got the argument from. 

5: Ehrman simply resorts to weasel words when pressed on the Gospels being formally anonymous. He was very clearly using it as an argument against traditional authorship. However, I will make a few points.

a) No doubt some Greco-Roman (GR) historians/biographers identify themselves in the text, but the Gospels aren't modeled on these texts. They imitate the Old Testament history books in this regard (though not only in this way.)

b) The Old Testament history books are also formally anonymous!

c) With respect to a), lets assume the Gospel authors are trying to do the exact same thing as the elite GR historian, Xenophon does writes about himself in 3rd person, even though he is a direct eyewitness! 

Xenophon, Anabasis 3.1- “There was in the army a certain Xenophon, an Athenian, who accompanied the army neither as a general nor as a captain nor as a private soldier; but Proxenos, an old acquaintance, had sent for him.” 

Simon Gathercole, in his 2018 paper The Alleged Anonymity Of The Canonical Gospels (p. 11 fn. 37 & 38) cites 4 Roman historians, Sallust, Livy, Tacitus & Florus. According to Gathercole, none of them identify themselves in their texts. 

5: Ehrman claims that McGrew is simply assuming the Christian tradition is correct. Well, prof. McGrew, looks like all those Friday nights you spent in the library as a teenager were just a waste! Pack it up!

On a serious note, secularism isn't objectivity. If anything, he is more biased in his research, given he is on record as saying a miracle is the least probable explanation, he needs to throw out quite a number of events from antiquity!

6: Ehrman claims that the early Christians had strong theological reasons for attributing the Gospels to their respective author, but what is the theological reason for naming Mark and Luke the authors of their respective Gospels? This alone cuts against Ehrman's assertion. 

7: McGrew calls out Ehrman's bluff on his repetitious appeal to 'critical scholars'. On a side note, does Ehrman not count the likes of Bauckham, Hengel, Keener, Gathercole, et al as serious scholars? Like McGrew said "...critical scholars as in the ones that agree with you?"

8: Ehrman acts as if McGrew does not know anything about NT scholarship.

a) McGrew has access to the same books & articles Ehrman does. 

b) McGrew is associated with several erudite scholars that are in the apologetics field as well. 

9: Ehrman rambles about harmonization, yet never provides an argument against its legitimacy. 

The rest of the debate goes on to issues of alleged contradictions in the narratives, but that is old fare, and Ehrman's examples have been addressed numerous times. Two recent posts by Jonathan McLatchie come to mind, here & here.